Earlier this month George Zimmerman was arrested at his girl friend's house on domestic violence charges (she says during an argument about her asking him to leave he pointed a shotgun at her and threatened her by breaking a glass table with his gun, then pushed her out of her own house).
At the scene, police found him with 5 guns (a 12 gauge shotgun, an AR-15 assault rifle, and 3 handguns) and 200 rounds of ammunition.
Here is a man who has killed one innocent, unarmed teenager; has a history of repeated domestic violence charges, as well as assault on a police officer; and numerous traffic violations.
It's interesting that his defense tends to be -- the other person was the aggressor. That was what got him acquitted of the murder charge: he 'was attacked' by the unarmed teenager. In both domestic violence cases, he has claimed that the woman attacked him, that she broke the glass table, not he. But he is always the one armed, the one who poses real danger to the other person.
Why is he still allowed to own even one gun, much less an assault rifle?
Ralph
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